No Future in the Bible

I am so glad to find the preface to Young's Literal Translation of the Bible online: http://www.bible-researcher.com/young.html#preface. Please consider what Young says about the use of tenses in the Hebrew Old Testament in the Preface to the Revised Edition, the Preface to the First Edition, and the Style of the Sacred Writers: 1) if narrating an event which might be either past or future, they spoke in the present; 2) if something was certain to happen in the future, they wrote of it in the past.

Basically, this means that the ancient Hebrew had no future tense.

God has an objective. He already figured out everything that needs to happen to fulfill his Manifestation. All those things were created -- imagined -- at the beginning. We now want these things which will get us to the Manifestation HE desires. They already exist in his economy! We just have to believe that we now receive them.

C. H. Dodd about the interpretation of the fourth Gospel: What happens at the end has already begun here and now. God counts it as already finished. We are just going through time to their culmination.

So when I read the Bible, including the New Testament, I mentally hear the 'wills' and 'shalls' of the future tense as present tense; e.g., "I will come again" becomes "I am (or have) come again."

Take a look at Young's comments and consider applying them yourself. Young's Literal Translation itself, unfortunately, is almost unreadable if you are not already familiar with Greek and Hebrew syntax and grammatical constructions.