An Associative Thought Inspired by Exodus 15:3

When I edited Exodus 15:3 (Alexander) into my previous post, I felt its translation was not quite finished:

The words "The Lord who is the champion, and the conquering Lord is His name," gave me an odd sight.

The Lord, YHWH in both cases, is the Milta (Miltha), the Manifestation of God who became Jesus Christ (John 1:1 in the Aramaic). The Milta is the Champion, and He is the Conquering Lord. The second half of the verse, "the Conquering Lord is His name," struck me as especially interesting: the word 'conquering' means prevailing, and "Eil's Prevailing" is the meaning of the Hebrew name 'Israel'. In Genesis 32:24-28 (below), Jacob, man's inner man who wrestled the Man the Milta appears as, earned the name Israel, "Eil’s Prevailing" :

24. And Jacob remained alone. And the man wrestled with him until the break of dawn.
25. And he noticed that he could not overpower him, so he attempted to extricate himself from Jacob's clutches, but he could not, for Jacob grabbed him by the foot, as he wrestled with him, and he said to him, "Let me go, for dawn has ascended."*
26. And he said, "I will not let you go unless you bless me."
27. And he asked him, "What is your name," and he told him, "Jacob."
28. He said to him, "Your name will not be Jacob anymore, but Israel, because you proved yourself against the angel and against the man, and you were found to be capable."*

The people 'Israel' are the Milta's prevailing to inculcate and cultivate, to generate the likeness of God in man. The Law is of incalculable valuable; it is the Milta's action in us. Israel is the Milta's nature acting in and around us. Yes, those who escaped Egypt were singing about God who had freed them, but it was to "He who is in us!" I will let you count up the faces of the one Revealer (John 1:18)*. By the way, this is what "the two shall become one" is about.

*This refers to an earlier post, Revelation/Power Bent (7/25/2020), wherein I said something like:

This revelation/power mindset started over forty years ago, when at Melodyland School of Theology I learned that the last word in John's prologue (1:1 through 18), because it does not have a specified object in the Greek text, has to be translated 'revealed' rather than 'declared'. I understood the logic, and found that none of the English versions so translated it. I wasn't surprised, knowing that he-who-deceives-the-whole-world has been especially active in the church. We have to fight to get to the truth.

I found that the Greek word exēgēsato (ἐξηγήσατο) is the last word in the Gospel of John's prologue (John 1:1 to 1:18). Exēgēsato, from which we get the words 'exegete' and 'exegesis', is usually ands normally translated "declared." Hence the King James Version's translation: "He hath declared Him." The commentary I was reading, however, pointed out that when the Greek word exēgēsato has no specified object, it must be translated "revealed" rather than "declared."

The Exēgēsato in John 1:18 is just such a case, for THERE IS NO OBJECT FOR IT IN THE GREEK TEXT. Unfortunately, because there is no object, the translators have supplied one, "Him," as the understood object. The understood object "Him" is italicized in our Bibles because IT IS NOT THERE IN THE GREEK TEXT--IT HAS BEEN SUPPLIED. Yes, the object is implied in the normal use of the word, but by supplying a specified object according to English grammatical rules, the translators violated the Greek grammatical rule of exēgēsato's meaning when it is without a specific object, which is "revealed." Thus our Bibles variously say that He (Jesus) "declared," "explained," "proclaimed," "spoke of," "made known," "told about," or "interpreted"; rather than just clearly stating what the GREEK text says, that "God-the-Father He revealed." The difference is stupendous.