Revelation/Power Bent

This is debacle because I have to give out piecemeal. It was revelation to me when I saw that Vic Alexander translates awon-galee-yoon and euangelion ("Gospel") as "He reveals" in the New Testament. I believe he is on the right track, but that it is bigger. And I have reason.

This revelation/power mindset started over forty years ago, when at Melodyland School of Theology I learned that the last word in John's prologue (verses 1:1 through 1:18), because it does not have a specified object in the Greek text, must be translated 'revealed' rather than 'declared'. I understood the logic, and found that none of the versions so translated it. I wasn't surprised, knowing that he who deceives the whole world has been especially active in the church. You have to fight to get to the truth. This was the beginning:

I found that the Greek word exēgēsato (ἐξηγήσατο), which is the last word in the Gospel According to Saint John's prologue (John 1:1 to 1:18). Exēgēsato, from which we get the words 'exegete' and 'exegesis', is usually translated "declared." Hence the King James Version's "He hath declared Him."

The commentary I was reading, however, pointed out that when the Greek word exēgēsato has no specified object, it must be translated "revealed" rather than "declared."

Exēgēsato in John 1:18 is just such a case, for THERE IS NO OBJECT FOR IT IN THE GREEK TEXT. Unfortunately, because there is no object, the translators have supplied one, "Him," for the understood object: "God the Father." The object "Him" is italicized in our Bibles because IT IS NOT THERE IN THE GREEK TEXT--IT HAS BEEN SUPPLIED. Yes, the object is implied in the normal use of the word, but by supplying a specified object, the translators voided the Greek grammatical rule of exēgēsato's meaning without the object, which is "revealed." Thus our Bibles variously say that He (Jesus) "declared," "explained," "proclaimed," "spoke of," "made known," "told about," or "interpreted" the Father; rather than just clearly saying: "God-the-Father He revealed." The difference is stupendous.

The logic is that with the object, something else is being declared or explained. Without the object, you are looking at the real thing; there is no separation: the one revealing is the one revealed.

I had this exchange with Andrew in my last post:

Don't you normally need an object with 'reveal' as much as 'declare'. Here, 'He has revealed' (God), makes sense, as does 'He has made declaration' (concerning God). Supplying an object is a pretty common thing in Greek I would say. No-one has seen God at any time.. - creates an expectancy and a question: so how can we get to know Him.. - the only-begotten Son (God in some texts) has made (Him) known (to us).

Regards,

Andrew
________________________________

No. If the object is not specified, 'he' IS the object. In a sense, 'he' is declaring, "I AM." He is DIRECTLY revealing Himself. Your second example isn't valid as it either is specifying the object, or is violating the rule. Can't have your cake and eat it, too, you know.